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1Z0-052 Exam Questions - Online Test


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Q1. You are managing an Oracle Database 11g database. The database is open, and you plan to perform Recovery Manager (RMAN) backups.

Which three statements are true about these backups? (Choose three.)

A. The backups would be consistent.

B. The backups would be inconsistent.

C. The backups would be possible only if the database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode.

D. The backups would be possible only if the database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode.

E. The backups need to be restored and the database has to be recovered in case of a media failure.

Answer: BCE

Q2. After performing a clean shut down of the database instance for maintenance, you mount the database and then execute a command to open the database:

SQL> ALTER DATABASE OPEN;

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The online redo log files and online data files are opened

B. All the online data files headers are checked for consistency

C. Instance recovery is performed before opening the database

D. The path and existence of all the log file members are checked

Answer: AB

Q3. You executed the following commands in an RMAN session for your database instance that has failures:

RMAN> LIST FAILURE;

After some time, you executed the following command in the same session:

RMAN> ADVISE FAILURE;

But there are new failures recorded in the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) after the execution of the last LIST FAILURE command. Which statement is true for the above ADVISE FAILURE command in this scenario?

A. It produces a warning for new failures before advising for CRITICAL and HIGH failures.

B. It ignores new failures and considers the failures listed in the last LIST FAILURE command only.

C. It produces advice only for new failures and the failures listed in the last LIST FAILURE command are ignored.

D. It produces an error with recommendation to run the LIST FAILURE command before the ADVISE FAILURE command.

Answer: A

Q4. Why does performance degrade when many UPDATE, INSERT or DELETE statements are issued on a table that has an associated bitmap index?

A. The DML operations re-create the bitmap index blocks

B. The bitmap index is rebuilt automatically after a DML operation

C. The smallest amount of a bitmap that can be locked is a bitmap segment

D. Additional time is taken to remove NULL values from the bitmap index after a DML operation

Answer: C

Q5. Which statements are true regarding the creation of an incident package file by using the EM Workbench Support? (Choose all that apply.)

A. You can add SQL test cases to the incident package.

B. You can add or remove the trace files to the package.

C. You cannot create an incremental incident package when the physical files are purged from the ADR.

D. You can create the incremental incident package ZIP file for new or modified diagnostic information for the incident package already created.

Answer: ABD

Q6. A constraint in a table is defined with the INITIALLY IMMEDIATE clause. You executed the ALTER TABLE command with the ENABLE VALIDATE option to enable the constraint that was disabled.

What are the two effects of this command? (Choose two.)

A. It fails if any existing row violates the constraint.

B. It does not validate the existing data in the table.

C. It enables the constraint to be enforced at the end of each transaction.

D. It prevents insert, update, and delete operations on the table while the constraint is in the process of being enabled.

Answer: AD

Q7. Which two statements are true regarding the SGA_TARGET initialization parameter? (Choose two.)

A. It can be increased up to the value of the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter.

B. Increasing the value of the SGA_TARGET parameter distributes the increased memory among all the autotuned components.

C. Reducing the value of the SGA_TARGET parameter deallocates memory from both autotuned and manually sized components.

D. Increasing the value of SGA_TARGET up to the value of SGA_MAX_SIZE disables the automatic shared memory management feature.

Answer: AB

Q8. Which two statements describe good practices for an application developer to reduce locking conflicts in Oracle database? (Choose two.)

A. Avoid coding unnecessary longrunning transactions.

B. Allow the database to handle locks in default locking mode.

C. Always explicitly code the locks as per the requirement of the application.

D. Allow escalation of row locks to block locks if too many row locks cause problem.

Answer: AB

Q9. User A executes the following command to drop a large table in your database:

SQL> DROP TABLE trans;

While the drop table operation is in progress; user B executes the following command on the same table;

SQL> DELETE FROM trans WHERE tr_type='SL'

Which statement is true regarding the DELETE command?

A. It fails to delete the records because the records are locked in the SHARE mode

B. It deletes the rows successfully because the table is locked in the SHARE mod

C. It fails to delete the records because the table is locked in EXCLUSIVE mode

D. It deletes the rows successfully because the table is locked in SHARE ROW EXCLUSIVE mode

Answer: C

Q10. In which situation may the UNDO_RETENTION parameter be ignored, even if it is set to a value?

A. When the data file of the undo tablespace is autoextensible

B. When there are more than one undo tablespace available in the database

C. When the undo tablespace is of a fixed size and retention guarantee is not enabled

D. When the undo tablespace is autoextensible and retention guarantee is not enabled

Answer: C