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Exam Code: SSCP (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: System Security Certified Practitioner (SSCP)
Certification Provider: ISC2
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NEW QUESTION 1

Which of the following is commonly used for retrofitting multilevel security to a database management system?

  • A. trusted front-end.
  • B. trusted back-end.
  • C. controller.
  • D. kernel.

Answer: A

Explanation:
If you are "retrofitting" that means you are adding to an existing database management system (DBMS). You could go back and redesign the entire DBMS but the cost of that could be expensive and there is no telling what the effect will be on existing applications, but that is redesigning and the question states retrofitting. The most cost effective way with the least effect on existing applications while adding a layer of security on top is through a trusted front-end.
Clark-Wilson is a synonym of that model as well. It was used to add more granular control or control to database that did not provide appropriate controls or no controls at all. It is one of the most popular model today. Any dynamic website with a back-end database is an example of this today.
Such a model would also introduce separation of duties by allowing the subject only specific rights on the objects they need to access.
The following answers are incorrect:
trusted back-end. Is incorrect because a trusted back-end would be the database management system (DBMS). Since the question stated "retrofitting" that eliminates this answer.
controller. Is incorrect because this is a distractor and has nothing to do with "retrofitting".
kernel. Is incorrect because this is a distractor and has nothing to do with "retrofitting". A security kernel would provide protection to devices and processes but would be inefficient in protecting rows or columns in a table.

NEW QUESTION 2

Which of the following questions are least likely to help in assessing controls covering audit trails?

  • A. Does the audit trail provide a trace of user actions?
  • B. Are incidents monitored and tracked until resolved?
  • C. Is access to online logs strictly controlled?
  • D. Is there separation of duties between security personnel who administer the access control function and those who administer the audit trail?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Audit trails maintain a record of system activity by system or application processes and by user activity. In conjunction with appropriate tools and procedures, audit trails can provide individual accountability, a means to reconstruct events, detect intrusions, and identify problems. Audit trail controls are considered technical controls. Monitoring and tracking of incidents is more an operational control related to incident response capability.
Reference(s) used for this question:
SWANSON, Marianne, NIST Special Publication 800-26, Security Self-Assessment Guide for Information Technology Systems, November 2001 (Pages A-50 to A-51).
NOTE: NIST SP 800-26 has been superceded By: FIPS 200, SP 800-53, SP 800-53A
You can find the new replacement at: http://csrc.nist.gov/publications/PubsSPs.html However, if you really wish to see the old standard, it is listed as an archived document at: http://csrc.nist.gov/publications/PubsSPArch.html

NEW QUESTION 3

Which cable technology refers to the CAT3 and CAT5 categories?

  • A. Coaxial cables
  • B. Fiber Optic cables
  • C. Axial cables
  • D. Twisted Pair cables

Answer: D

Explanation:
Twisted Pair cables currently have two categories in common usage. CAT3 and CAT5.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 72.

NEW QUESTION 4

In computing what is the name of a non-self-replicating type of malware program containing malicious code that appears to have some useful purpose but also contains code that has a malicious or harmful purpose imbedded in it, when executed, carries out actions that are unknown to the person installing it, typically causing loss or theft of data, and possible system harm.

  • A. virus
  • B. worm
  • C. Trojan horse.
  • D. trapdoor

Answer: C

Explanation:
A trojan horse is any code that appears to have some useful purpose but also contains code that has a malicious or harmful purpose imbedded in it. A Trojan often also includes a trapdoor as a means to gain access to a computer system bypassing security controls.
Wikipedia defines it as:
A Trojan horse, or Trojan, in computing is a non-self-replicating type of malware program containing malicious code that, when executed, carries out actions determined by the nature of the Trojan, typically causing loss or theft of data, and possible system harm. The term is derived from the story of the wooden horse used to trick defenders of Troy into taking concealed warriors into their city in ancient Greece, because computer Trojans often employ a form of social engineering, presenting themselves as routine, useful, or interesting in order to persuade victims to install them on their computers.
The following answers are incorrect:
virus. Is incorrect because a Virus is a malicious program and is does not appear to be harmless, it's sole purpose is malicious intent often doing damage to a system. A computer virus is a type of malware that, when executed, replicates by inserting copies of itself (possibly modified) into other computer programs, data files, or the boot sector of the hard drive; when this replication succeeds, the affected areas are then said to be "infected".
worm. Is incorrect because a Worm is similiar to a Virus but does not require user intervention to execute. Rather than doing damage to the system, worms tend to self- propagate and devour the resources of a system. A computer worm is a standalone malware computer program that replicates itself in order to spread to other computers. Often, it uses a computer network to spread itself, relying on security failures on the target computer to access it. Unlike a computer virus, it does not need to attach itself to an existing program. Worms almost always cause at least some harm to the network, even if only by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost always corrupt or modify files on a targeted computer.
trapdoor. Is incorrect because a trapdoor is a means to bypass security by hiding an entry point into a system. Trojan Horses often have a trapdoor imbedded in them.
References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trojan_horse_%28computing%29
and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Computer_virus
and http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Computer_worm and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Backdoor_%28computing%29

NEW QUESTION 5

Which one of the following represents an ALE calculation?

  • A. single loss expectancy x annualized rate of occurrence.
  • B. gross loss expectancy x loss frequency.
  • C. actual replacement cost - proceeds of salvage.
  • D. asset value x loss expectancy.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is the dollar amount that would be lost if there was a loss of an asset. Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) is an estimated possibility of a threat to an asset taking place in one year (for example if there is a change of a flood
occuring once in 10 years the ARO would be .1, and if there was a chance of a flood occuring once in 100 years then the ARO would be .01).
The following answers are incorrect:
gross loss expectancy x loss frequency. Is incorrect because this is a distractor.
actual replacement cost - proceeds of salvage. Is incorrect because this is a distractor. asset value x loss expectancy. Is incorrect because this is a distractor.

NEW QUESTION 6

What is the name of a one way transformation of a string of characters into a usually shorter fixed-length value or key that represents the original string? Such a transformation cannot be reversed?

  • A. One-way hash
  • B. DES
  • C. Transposition
  • D. Substitution

Answer: A

Explanation:
A cryptographic hash function is a transformation that takes an input (or 'message') and returns a fixed-size string, which is called the hash value (sometimes termed a message digest, a digital fingerprint, a digest or a checksum).
The ideal hash function has three main properties - it is extremely easy to calculate a hash for any given data, it is extremely difficult or almost impossible in a practical sense to calculate a text that has a given hash, and it is extremely unlikely that two different messages, however close, will have the same hash.
Functions with these properties are used as hash functions for a variety of purposes, both within and outside cryptography. Practical applications include message integrity checks, digital signatures, authentication, and various information security applications. A hash can also act as a concise representation of the message or document from which it was computed, and allows easy indexing of duplicate or unique data files.
In various standards and applications, the two most commonly used hash functions are MD5 and SHA-1. In 2005, security flaws were identified in both of these, namely that a possible mathematical weakness might exist, indicating that a stronger hash function would be desirable. In 2007 the National Institute of Standards and Technology announced a
contest to design a hash function which will be given the name SHA-3 and be the subject of a FIPS standard.
A hash function takes a string of any length as input and produces a fixed length string which acts as a kind of "signature" for the data provided. In this way, a person knowing the hash is unable to work out the original message, but someone knowing the original message can prove the hash is created from that message, and none other. A cryptographic hash function should behave as much as possible like a random function while still being deterministic and efficiently computable.
A cryptographic hash function is considered "insecure" from a cryptographic point of view, if either of the following is computationally feasible:
finding a (previously unseen) message that matches a given digest
finding "collisions", wherein two different messages have the same message digest.
An attacker who can do either of these things might, for example, use them to substitute an authorized message with an unauthorized one.
Ideally, it should not even be feasible to find two messages whose digests are substantially similar; nor would one want an attacker to be able to learn anything useful about a message given only its digest. Of course the attacker learns at least one piece of information, the digest itself, which for instance gives the attacker the ability to recognise the same message should it occur again.
REFERENCES:
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Pages 40-41.
also see: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cryptographic_hash_function

NEW QUESTION 7

Like the Kerberos protocol, SESAME is also subject to which of the following?

  • A. timeslot replay
  • B. password guessing
  • C. symmetric key guessing
  • D. asymmetric key guessing

Answer: B

Explanation:
Sesame is an authentication and access control protocol, that also supports communication confidentiality and integrity. It provides public key based authentication along with the Kerberos style authentication, that uses symmetric key cryptography. Sesame supports the Kerberos protocol and adds some security extensions like public key based authentication and an ECMA-style Privilege Attribute Service.
The users under SESAME can authenticate using either symmetric encryption as in Kerberos or Public Key authentication. When using Symmetric Key authentication as in Kerberos, SESAME is also vulnerable to password guessing just like Kerberos would be.
The Symmetric key being used is based on the password used by the user when he logged on the system. If the user has a simple password it could be guessed or compromise. Even thou Kerberos or SESAME may be use, there is still a need to have strong password discipline.
The Basic Mechanism in Sesame for strong authentication is as follow:
The user sends a request for authentication to the Authentication Server as in Kerberos, except that SESAME is making use of public key cryptography for authentication where the client will present his digital certificate and the request will be signed using a digital signature. The signature is communicated to the authentication server through the preauthentication fields. Upon receipt of this request, the authentication server will verifies the certificate, then validate the signature, and if all is fine the AS will issue a ticket granting ticket (TGT) as in Kerberos. This TGT will be use to communicate with the privilage attribute server (PAS) when access to a resource is needed.
Users may authenticate using either a public key pair or a conventional (symmetric) key. If public key cryptography is used, public key data is transported in preauthentication data fields to help establish identity.
Kerberos uses tickets for authenticating subjects to objects and SESAME uses Privileged Attribute Certificates (PAC), which contain the subject??s identity, access capabilities for the object, access time period, and lifetime of the PAC. The PAC is digitally signed so that the object can validate that it came from the trusted authentication server, which is referred to as the privilege attribute server (PAS). The PAS holds a similar role as the KDC within Kerberos. After a user successfully authenticates to the authentication service (AS), he is presented with a token to give to the PAS. The PAS then creates a PAC for the user to present to the resource he is trying to access.
Reference(s) used for this question: http://srg.cs.uiuc.edu/Security/nephilim/Internal/SESAME.txt
and
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 43.

NEW QUESTION 8

As per the Orange Book, what are two types of system assurance?

  • A. Operational Assurance and Architectural Assurance.
  • B. Design Assurance and Implementation Assurance.
  • C. Architectural Assurance and Implementation Assurance.
  • D. Operational Assurance and Life-Cycle Assurance.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Are the two types of assurance mentioned in the Orange book. The following answers are incorrect:
Operational Assurance and Architectural Assurance. Is incorrect because Architectural Assurance is not a type of assurance mentioned in the Orange book.
Design Assurance and Implementation Assurance. Is incorrect because neither are types of assurance mentioned in the Orange book.
Architectural Assurance and Implementation Assurance. Is incorrect because neither are types of assurance mentioned in the Orange book.

NEW QUESTION 9

Attributable data should be:

  • A. always traced to individuals responsible for observing and recording the data
  • B. sometimes traced to individuals responsible for observing and recording the data
  • C. never traced to individuals responsible for observing and recording the data
  • D. often traced to individuals responsible for observing and recording the data

Answer: A

Explanation:
As per FDA data should be attributable, original, accurate, contemporaneous
and legible. In an automated system attributability could be achieved by a computer system designed to identify individuals responsible for any input.
Source: U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Food and Drug Administration, Guidance for Industry - Computerized Systems Used in Clinical Trials, April 1999, page 1.

NEW QUESTION 10

Who is responsible for initiating corrective measures and capabilities used when there are security violations?

  • A. Information systems auditor
  • B. Security administrator
  • C. Management
  • D. Data owners

Answer: C

Explanation:
Management is responsible for protecting all assets that are directly or indirectly under their control.
They must ensure that employees understand their obligations to protect the company's assets, and implement security in accordance with the company policy. Finally, management is responsible for initiating corrective actions when there are security violations.
Source: HARE, Chris, Security management Practices CISSP Open Study Guide, version 1.0, april 1999.

NEW QUESTION 11

Which approach to a security program ensures people responsible for protecting the
company's assets are DRIVING the program?

  • A. The Delphi approach
  • B. The top-down approach
  • C. The bottom-up approach
  • D. The technology approach

Answer: B

Explanation:
A security program should use a top-down approach, meaning that the initiation, support, and direction come from top management; work their way through middle management; and then reach staff members.
In contrast, a bottom-up approach refers to a situation in which staff members (usually IT ) try to develop a security program without getting proper management support and direction. A bottom-up approach is commonly less effective, not broad enough to address all security risks, and doomed to fail.
A top-down approach makes sure the people actually responsible for protecting the company??s assets (senior management) are driving the program.
The following are incorrect answers:
The Delphi approach is incorrect as this is for a brainstorming technique.
The bottom-up approach is also incorrect as this approach would be if the IT department tried to develop a security program without proper support from upper management.
The technology approach is also incorrect as it does not fit into the category of best answer.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-18). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 63). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.

NEW QUESTION 12

If an operating system permits shared resources such as memory to be used sequentially by multiple users/application or subjects without a refresh of the objects/memory area, what security problem is MOST likely to exist?

  • A. Disclosure of residual data.
  • B. Unauthorized obtaining of a privileged execution state.
  • C. Data leakage through covert channels.
  • D. Denial of service through a deadly embrace.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Allowing objects to be used sequentially by multiple users without a refresh of the objects can lead to disclosure of residual data. It is important that steps be taken to eliminate the chance for the disclosure of residual data.
Object reuse refers to the allocation or reallocation of system resources to a user or, more appropriately, to an application or process. Applications and services on a computer system may create or use objects in memory and in storage to perform programmatic functions. In some cases, it is necessary to share these resources between various system applications. However, some objects may be employed by an application to perform privileged tasks on behalf of an authorized user or upstream application. If object usage is not controlled or the data in those objects is not erased after use, they may become available to unauthorized users or processes.
Disclosure of residual data and Unauthorized obtaining of a privileged execution state are both a problem with shared memory and resources. Not clearing the heap/stack can result in residual data and may also allow the user to step on somebody's session if the security token/identify was maintained in that space. This is generally more malicious and intentional than accidental though. The MOST common issue would be Disclosure of residual data.
The following answers are incorrect:
Unauthorized obtaining of a privileged execution state. Is incorrect because this is not a
problem with Object Reuse.
Data leakage through covert channels. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. A covert channel is a communication path. Data leakage would not be a problem created by Object Reuse. In computer security, a covert channel is a type of computer security attack that creates a capability to transfer information objects between processes that are not supposed to be allowed to communicate by the computer security policy. The term, originated in 1973 by Lampson is defined as "(channels) not intended for information transfer at all, such as the service program's effect on system load." to distinguish it from Legitimate channels that are subjected to access controls by COMPUSEC.
Denial of service through a deadly embrace. Is incorrect because it is only a detractor. References:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 4174-4179). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
and https://www.fas.org/irp/nsa/rainbow/tg018.htm and http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Covert_channel

NEW QUESTION 13

The first step in the implementation of the contingency plan is to perform:

  • A. A firmware backup
  • B. A data backup
  • C. An operating systems software backup
  • D. An application software backup

Answer: B

Explanation:
A data backup is the first step in contingency planning.
Without data, there is nothing to process. "No backup, no recovery". Backup for hardware should be taken care of next.
Formal arrangements must be made for alternate processing capability in case the need should arise.
Operating systems and application software should be taken care of afterwards.
Source: VALLABHANENI, S. Rao, CISSP Examination Textbooks, Volume 2: Practice, SRV Professional Publications, 2002, Chapter 8, Business Continuity Planning & Disaster Recovery Planning (page 506).

NEW QUESTION 14

Which of the following statements pertaining to Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) is false?

  • A. It can be used for voice
  • B. it can be used for data
  • C. It carries various sizes of packets
  • D. It can be used for video

Answer: C

Explanation:
ATM is an example of a fast packet-switching network that can be used for either data, voice or video, but packets are of fixed size.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw- Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 7: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 455).

NEW QUESTION 15

What does the (star) integrity axiom mean in the Biba model?

  • A. No read up
  • B. No write down
  • C. No read down
  • D. No write up

Answer: D

Explanation:
The (star) integrity axiom of the Biba access control model states that an object at one level of integrity is not permitted to modify an object of a higher level of integrity (no write up).
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 5: Security Architectures and Models (page 205).

NEW QUESTION 16

Which of the following is defined as an Internet, IPsec, key-establishment protocol, partly based on OAKLEY, that is intended for putting in place authenticated keying material for use with ISAKMP and for other security associations?

  • A. Internet Key exchange (IKE)
  • B. Security Association Authentication Protocol (SAAP)
  • C. Simple Key-management for Internet Protocols (SKIP)
  • D. Key Exchange Algorithm (KEA)

Answer: A

Explanation:
RFC 2828 (Internet Security Glossary) defines IKE as an Internet, IPsec, key-establishment protocol (partly based on OAKLEY) that is intended for putting in place authenticated keying material for use with ISAKMP and for other security associations, such as in AH and ESP.
The following are incorrect answers:
SKIP is a key distribution protocol that uses hybrid encryption to convey session keys that are used to encrypt data in IP packets.
The Key Exchange Algorithm (KEA) is defined as a key agreement algorithm that is similar to the Diffie-Hellman algorithm, uses 1024-bit asymmetric keys, and was developed and formerly classified at the secret level by the NSA.
Security Association Authentication Protocol (SAAP) is a distracter. Reference(s) used for this question:
SHIREY, Robert W., RFC2828: Internet Security Glossary, may 2000.

NEW QUESTION 17

Which of the following protocols operates at the session layer (layer 5)?

  • A. RPC
  • B. IGMP
  • C. LPD
  • D. SPX

Answer: A

Explanation:
Remotre Procedure Call (RPC) is the only of the above choices to operate at the session layer (layer 5).
All of the other answers were wrong. LPD operates at layer 7
SPX operates at layer 4
IGMP operates at layer 3.
Reference:
WALLHOFF, John, CBK#2 Telecommunications and Network Security (CISSP Study Guide), April 2002 (page 1).

NEW QUESTION 18

Making sure that the data has not been changed unintentionally, due to an accident or malice is:

  • A. Integrity.
  • B. Confidentiality.
  • C. Availability.
  • D. Auditability.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Integrity refers to the protection of information from unauthorized modification or deletion.
Confidentiality is incorrect. Confidentiality refers to the protection of information from unauthorized disclosure.
Availability is incorrect. Availability refers to the assurance that information and services will be available to authorized users in accordance with the service level objective.
Auditability is incorrect. Auditability refers to the ability to trace an action to the identity that performed it and identify the date and time at which it occurred.
References: CBK, pp. 5 - 6
AIO3, pp. 56 - 57

NEW QUESTION 19

Which of the following security modes of operation involves the highest risk?

  • A. Compartmented Security Mode
  • B. Multilevel Security Mode
  • C. System-High Security Mode
  • D. Dedicated Security Mode

Answer: B

Explanation:
In multilevel mode, two or more classification levels of data exist, some people are not cleared for all the data on the system.
Risk is higher because sensitive data could be made available to someone not validated as being capable of maintaining secrecy of that data (i.e., not cleared for it).
In other security modes, all users have the necessary clearance for all data on the system. Source: LaROSA, Jeanette (domain leader), Application and System Development Security CISSP Open Study Guide, version 3.0, January 2002.

NEW QUESTION 20

What is RAD?

  • A. A development methodology
  • B. A project management technique
  • C. A measure of system complexity
  • D. Risk-assessment diagramming

Answer: A

Explanation:
RAD stands for Rapid Application Development.
RAD is a methodology that enables organizations to develop strategically important systems faster while reducing development costs and maintaining quality.
RAD is a programming system that enables programmers to quickly build working programs.
In general, RAD systems provide a number of tools to help build graphical user interfaces that would normally take a large development effort.
Two of the most popular RAD systems for Windows are Visual Basic and Delphi. Historically, RAD systems have tended to emphasize reducing development time, sometimes at the expense of generating in-efficient executable code. Nowadays, though, many RAD systems produce extremely faster code that is optimized.
Conversely, many traditional programming environments now come with a number of visual tools to aid development. Therefore, the line between RAD systems and other development environments has become blurred.
Reference:
Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual, chapter 6: Business Application System Development, Acquisition, Implementation and Maintenance (page 307)
http://www.webopedia.com

NEW QUESTION 21
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