Q1. You are designing a network that will run EIGRP over a Metro Ethernet service that does not employ a link-loss technology. What will be the impact on convergence if there is a break in the end-to-end Layer 2 connectivity within the service provider network? 

A. The routers will immediately lose their adjacencies and converge. 

B. The routing protocol will not converge until the hold timers have expired. 

C. The switch ports connected to the router will go down and the routers will immediately converge. 

D. The VLAN on the switches will go inactive, the ports associated on the switch will go down, and the routers will immediately converge. 

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Q2. You are the lead network designer hired by Service Provider XYZ to deploy CoS functionality on the core MPLS network (P routers). The goal of the network design is to provide a complete CoS solution to all customers that purchase services such as dedicated Internet access, MPLS L3VPN, and L2VPN (pseudowire). Service Provider XYZ has these design requirements: 

The network supports four service queues with equal treatment for delay, jitter, and packet loss. 

Queues are numbered 0-3, where 0 is the default queue. 

Three queues have one treatment. 

One queue has either one or two treatments. 

If your design includes eight CoS queues on the Service Provider XYZ MPLS PE router ingress (CE facing) interface, how will customer traffic be classified as it enters the MLS P routers? 

A. The eight CoS queues in the MPLS P router are remapped to the eight CoS queues. 

B. Traffic is classified on the MPLS PE routers on core facing interface. The DSCP value is mapped into EXP field where multiple EXP settings (2+) will be assigned to a single queue throughout the MPLS P routers. 

C. Discard the traffic from the eight CoS queues that does not match the four CoS queues of the MPLS P routers. 

D. The 8 CoS queues in the MPLS P router are remapped to four 4 flow-label queues. 

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Q3. A company plans to establish a new network using Cisco Catalyst switches for its multicast applications. What is the disadvantage when two multicast applications are using the multicast IP addresses 234.17.4.5 and 234.145.4.5 inside the same network? 

A. Multicast packets from both applications are flooded to all Layer 2 ports in a segment where a multicast receiver is located. 

B. Multicast packets from both applications are flooded to ports where one multicast receiver from one application is located. 

C. Only one multicast stream is received at the port where the receivers from both applications are located. 

D. Both multicast senders will always receive the multicast packets from the other multicast application. 

E. The routers doing PIM-SM cannot distinguish between the two multicast applications. 

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Q4. Which two headend router scalability factors should be considered when designing a DMVPN network solution that uses a hub-and-spoke topology? (Choose two.) 

A. the required aggregated packet per second 

B. the amount of bandwidth necessary to terminate all the remote tunnels 

C. the routing protocol chosen for the data plane routing 

D. the maximum number of tunnels supported by the headend router 

E. the CPU and memory of the headend router 

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Q5. You work for a large company that has just acquired another smaller company. You have been asked to lead a group of SAN experts from both companies to design the integration plan that will be used to interconnect the SANs and migrate the data from the newly acquired company to the main storage arrays. The first thing that the team discovers is that the two SANs have the same domain IDs. 

As the SAN team lead, what would you advise your team to do so that you can interconnect the two SANs while minimizing disruption? 

A. Use FCIP with Write Acceleration and IVR version 1 with a transit VSAN to expedite the data transfer between the two SANs. 

B. Change the domain IDs on both SANs so that they are both unique and then connect ISLs between the SANs. 

C. Use IVR NAT with a transit VSAN between the SANs. 

D. The two SANs cannot be merged without disruption. 

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Q6. You are designing a traffic monitoring and analysis system for a customer. Which traffic monitoring technique would you recommend to place the least amount of burden on the network infrastructure? 

A. SPAN monitor ports 

B. NetFlow 

C. IP NBAR 

D. passive taps 

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Q7. You are using iSCSI to transfer files between a 10 Gigabit Ethernet storage system and a 1 Gigabit Ethernet server. The performance is only approximately 700 Mb/s and output drops are occurring on the server switch port. Which action will improve performance in a cost-effective manner? 

A. Use a WRED random drop policy. 

B. Increase the queue to at least 1 GB. 

C. Enable the TCP Nagle algorithm on the receiver. 

D. Change the protocol to CIFS. 

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Q8. What are three key design principles when using a classic hierarchical network model? (Choose three.) 

A. The core layer controls access to resources for security. 

B. The core layer should be configured with minimal complexity. 

C. The core layer is designed first, followed by the distribution layer and then the access layer. 

D. A hierarchical network design model aids fault isolation. 

E. The core layer provides server access in a small campus. 

F. A hierarchical network design facilitates changes. 

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Q9. When creating a network design, which one of these options provides for basic Layer 2 client isolation to prevent broadcast traffic exposure? 

A. SVI 

B. VLAN 

C. routed port 

D. edge port 

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Q10. Your company requires two diverse multihop External Border Gateway Protocol peerings to a partner network. Which two methods would you use to improve lost peer detection? (Choose two.) 

A. Use Bidirectional Forwarding Detection for the peers. 

B. Use Selective Address Tracking and match the peers. 

C. Use subsecond keepalives for the peers. 

D. Use subsecond hold timers for the peers. 

E. Use Fast Peering Session Deactivation for the peers. 

F. Use subsecond minimum route advertisement Interval timers for the peers. 

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