Q1. - (Topic 1)
You have two Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instances inside a Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) in the same Availability Zone (AZ) but in different subnets. One instance is running a database and the other instance an application that will interface with the database. You want to confirm that they can talk to each other for your application to work properly.
Which two things do we need to confirm in the VPC settings so that these EC2 instances can communicate inside the VPC? Choose 2 answers
A. A network ACL that allows communication between the two subnets.
B. Both instances are the same instance class and using the same Key-pair.
C. That the default route is set to a NAT instance or internet Gateway (IGW) for them to communicate.
D. Security groups are set to allow the application host to talk to the database on the right port/protocol.
Answer: A,D
Q2. - (Topic 3)
A user has launched an EC2 Windows instance from an instance store backed AMI. The user has also set the Instance initiated shutdown behavior to stop. What will happen when the user shuts down the OS?
A. It will not allow the user to shutdown the OS when the shutdown behaviour is set to Stop
B. It is not possible to set the termination behaviour to Stop for an Instance store backed AMI instance
C. The instance will stay running but the OS will be shutdown
D. The instance will be terminated
Answer: B
Explanation:
When the EC2 instance is launched from an instance store backed AMI, it will not allow the user to configure the shutdown behaviour to “Stop”. It gives a warning that the instance does not have the EBS root volume.
Q3. - (Topic 1)
Which of the following are characteristics of Amazon VPC subnets?
Choose 2 answers
A. Each subnet maps to a single Availability Zone
B. A CIDR block mask of /25 is the smallest range supported
C. Instances in a private subnet can communicate with the internet only if they have an Elastic IP.
D. By default, all subnets can route between each other, whether they are private or public
E. V Each subnet spans at least 2 Availability zones to provide a high-availability environment
Answer: C,E
Q4. - (Topic 2)
A user has setup Auto Scaling with ELB on the EC2 instances. The user wants to configure that whenever the CPU utilization is below 10%, Auto Scaling should remove one instance. How can the user configure this?
A. The user can get an email using SNS when the CPU utilization is less than 10%. The user can use the desired capacity of Auto Scaling to remove the instance B. Use CloudWatch to monitor the data and Auto Scaling to remove the instances using scheduled actions
C. Configure CloudWatch to send a notification to Auto Scaling Launch configuration when the CPU utilization is less than 10% and configure the Auto Scaling policy to remove the instance
D. Configure CloudWatch to send a notification to the Auto Scaling group when the CPU Utilization is less than 10% and configure the Auto Scaling policy to remove the instance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Amazon CloudWatch alarms watch a single metric over a time period that the user specifies and performs one or more actions based on the value of the metric relative to a given threshold over a number of time periods. The user can setup to receive a notification on the Auto Scaling group with the CloudWatch alarm when the CPU utilization is below a certain threshold. The user can configure the Auto Scaling policy to take action for removing the instance. When the CPU utilization is below 10% CloudWatch will send an alarm to the Auto Scaling group to execute the policy.
Q5. - (Topic 2)
A user is planning to use AWS Cloud formation for his automatic deployment requirements. Which of the below mentioned components are required as a part of the template?
A. Parameters
B. Outputs
C. Template version
D. Resources
Answer: D
Explanation:
AWS Cloud formation is an application management tool which provides application modelling, deployment, configuration, management and related activities. The template is a JSON-format, text-based file that describes all the AWS resources required to deploy and run an application. It can have option fields, such as Template Parameters, Output, Data tables, and Template file format version. The only mandatory value is Resource. The user can define the AWS services which will be used/ created by this template inside the Resource section
Q6. - (Topic 3)
A user is displaying the CPU utilization, and Network in and Network out CloudWatch metrics data of a single instance on the same graph. The graph uses one Y-axis for CPU utilization and Network in and another Y-axis for Network out. Since Network in is too high, the CPU utilization data is not visible clearly on graph to the user. How can the data be viewed better on the same graph?
A. It is not possible to show multiple metrics with the different units on the same graph
B. Add a third Y-axis with the console to show all the data in proportion
C. Change the axis of Network by using the Switch command from the graph
D. Change the units of CPU utilization so it can be shown in proportion with Network
Answer: C
Explanation:
Amazon CloudWatch provides the functionality to graph the metric data generated either by the AWS services or the custom metric to make it easier for the user to analyse. It is possible to show the multiple metrics with different units on the same graph. If the graph is not plotted properly due to a difference in the unit data over two metrics, the user can change the Y-axis of one of the graph by selecting that graph and clicking on the Switch option.
Q7. - (Topic 2)
A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/24. The user has created a public subnet with CIDR 20.0.0.0/25 and a private subnet with CIDR 20.0.0.128/25. The user has launched one instance each in the private and public subnets. Which of the below mentioned options cannot be the correct IP address (private IP. assigned to an instance in the public or private subnet?
A. 20.0.0.255
B. 20.0.0.132
C. 20.0.0.122
D. 20.0.0.55
Answer: A
Explanation:
When the user creates a subnet in VPC, he specifies the CIDR block for the subnet. In this case the user has created a VPC with the CIDR block 20.0.0.0/24, which supports 256 IP addresses (20.0.0.0 to 20.0.0.255.. The public subnet will have IP addresses between 20.0.0.0 - 20.0.0.127 and the private subnet will have IP addresses between 20.0.0.128 -20.0.0.255. AWS reserves the first four IP addresses and the last IP address in each subnet’s CIDR block. These are not available for the user to use. Thus, the instance cannot have an IP address of 20.0.0.255
Q8. - (Topic 2)
A user wants to disable connection draining on an existing ELB. Which of the below mentioned statements helps the user disable connection draining on the ELB?
A. The user can only disable connection draining from CLI
B. It is not possible to disable the connection draining feature once enabled
C. The user can disable the connection draining feature from EC2 -> ELB console or from CLI
D. The user needs to stop all instances before disabling connection draining
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Elastic Load Balancer connection draining feature causes the load balancer to stop sending new requests to the back-end instances when the instances are deregistering or become unhealthy, while ensuring that inflight requests continue to be served. The user can enable or disable connection draining from the AWS EC2 console -> ELB or using CLI.
Q9. - (Topic 2)
An organization is using cost allocation tags to find the cost distribution of different departments and projects. One of the instances has two separate tags with the key/ value as “InstanceName/HR”, “CostCenter/HR”. What will AWS do in this case?
A. InstanceName is a reserved tag for AWS. Thus, AWS will not allow this tag
B. AWS will not allow the tags as the value is the same for different keys
C. AWS will allow tags but will not show correctly in the cost allocation report due to the same value of the two separate keys
D. AWS will allow both the tags and show properly in the cost distribution report
Answer: D
Explanation:
AWS provides cost allocation tags to categorize and track the AWS costs. When the user applies tags to his AWS resources, AWS generates a cost allocation report as a comma-separated value (CSV file. with the usage and costs aggregated by those tags. Each tag will have a key-value and can be applied to services, such as EC2, S3, RDS, EMR, etc. It is required that the key should be different for each tag. The value can be the same for different keys. In this case since the value is different, AWS will properly show the distribution report with the correct values.
Q10. - (Topic 2)
A user has created a queue named “myqueue” with SQS. There are four messages published to queue which are not received by the consumer yet. If the user tries to delete the queue, what will happen?
A. A user can never delete a queue manually. AWS deletes it after 30 days of inactivity on queue
B. It will delete the queue
C. It will initiate the delete but wait for four days before deleting until all messages are deleted automatically.
D. I t will ask user to delete the messages first
Answer: B
Explanation:
SQS allows the user to move data between distributed components of applications so they can perform different tasks without losing messages or requiring each component to be always available. The user can delete a queue at any time, whether it is empty or not. It is important to note that queues retain messages for a set period of time. By default, a queue retains messages for four days.