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SY0-401 Exam Questions - Online Test


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Q1. Which of the following MUST Matt, a security administrator, implement to verify both the integrity and authenticity of a message while requiring a shared secret? 

A. RIPEMD 

B. MD5 

C. SHA 

D. HMAC 

Answer:

Explanation: 

HMAC (Hash-Based Message Authentication Code) uses a hashing algorithm along with a symmetric key. The hashing function provides data integrity, while the symmetric key provides authenticity. 

Q2. Company A sends a PGP encrypted file to company B. If company A used company B’s public key to encrypt the file, which of the following should be used to decrypt data at company B? 

A. Registration 

B. Public key 

C. CRLs 

D. Private key 

Answer:

Explanation: 

In a PKI the sender encrypts the data using the receiver's public key. The receiver decrypts the 

data using his own private key. 

PKI is a two-key, asymmetric system with four main components: certificate authority (CA), 

registration authority (RA), RSA (the encryption algorithm), and digital certificates. Messages are 

encrypted with a public key and decrypted with a private key. 

A PKI example: 

1.

 You want to send an encrypted message to Jordan, so you request his public key. 

2.

 Jordan responds by sending you that key. 

3.

 You use the public key he sends you to encrypt the message. 

4.

 You send the message to him. 

5.

 Jordan uses his private key to decrypt the message. 

Q3. Highly sensitive data is stored in a database and is accessed by an application on a DMZ server. The disk drives on all servers are fully encrypted. Communication between the application server and end-users is also encrypted. Network ACLs prevent any connections to the database server except from the application server. Which of the following can still result in exposure of the sensitive data in the database server? 

A. SQL Injection 

B. Theft of the physical database server 

C. Cookies 

D. Cross-site scripting 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The question discusses a very secure environment with disk and transport level encryption and access control lists restricting access. SQL data in a database is accessed by SQL queries from an application on the application server. The data can still be compromised by a SQL injection attack. SQL injection is a code injection technique, used to attack data-driven applications, in which malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution (e.g. to dump the database contents to the attacker). SQL injection must exploit a security vulnerability in an application's software, for example, when user input is either incorrectly filtered for string literal escape characters embedded in SQL statements or user input is not strongly typed and unexpectedly executed. SQL injection is mostly known as an attack vector for websites but can be used to attack any type of SQL database. 

Q4. In order to prevent and detect fraud, which of the following should be implemented? 

A. Job rotation 

B. Risk analysis 

C. Incident management 

D. Employee evaluations 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A job rotation policy defines intervals at which employees must rotate through positions. Similar in purpose to mandatory vacations, it helps to ensure that the company does not become too dependent on one person and it does afford the company with the opportunity to place another person in that same job and in this way the company can potentially uncover any fraud perhaps committed by the incumbent. 

Q5. Which of the following can be implemented with multiple bit strength? 

A. AES 

B. DES 

C. SHA-1 

D. MD5 

E. MD4 

Answer:

Explanation: 

AES (a symmetric algorithm) uses key sizes of 128, 192, or 256 bits. 

Q6. Which of the following protocols allows for the LARGEST address space? 

A. IPX 

B. IPv4 

C. IPv6 

D. Appletalk 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The main advantage of IPv6 over IPv4 is its larger address space. The length of an IPv6 address is 128 bits, compared with 32 bits in IPv4. 

Q7. A distributed denial of service attack can BEST be described as: 

A. Invalid characters being entered into a field in a database application. 

B. Users attempting to input random or invalid data into fields within a web browser application. 

C. Multiple computers attacking a single target in an organized attempt to deplete its resources. 

D. Multiple attackers attempting to gain elevated privileges on a target system. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is an attack from several different computers targeting a single computer. One common method of attack involves saturating the target machine with external communications requests, so much so that it cannot respond to legitimate traffic, or responds so slowly as to be rendered essentially unavailable. Such attacks usually lead to a server overload. 

A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack occurs when multiple systems flood the bandwidth or resources of a targeted system, usually one or more web servers. Such an attack is often the result of multiple compromised systems (for example a botnet) flooding the targeted system with traffic. When a server is overloaded with connections, new connections can no longer be accepted. The major advantages to an attacker of using a distributed denial-of-service attack are that multiple machines can generate more attack traffic than one machine, multiple attack machines are harder to turn off than one attack machine, and that the behavior of each attack machine can be stealthier, making it harder to track and shut down. These attacker advantages cause challenges for defense mechanisms. For example, merely purchasing more incoming bandwidth than the current volume of the attack might not help, because the attacker might be able to simply add more attack machines. This after all will end up completely crashing a website for periods of time. Malware can carry DDoS attack mechanisms; one of the better-known examples of this was MyDoom. Its DoS mechanism was triggered on a specific date and time. This type of DDoS involved hardcoding the target IP address prior to release of the malware and no further interaction was necessary to launch the attack. 

Q8. Speaking a passphrase into a voice print analyzer is an example of which of the following security concepts? 

A. Two factor authentication 

B. Identification and authorization 

C. Single sign-on 

D. Single factor authentication 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Two-factor authentication is when two different authentication factors are provided for 

authentication purposes. 

Speaking (Voice) – something they are. 

Passphrase – something they know. 

Q9. DRAG DROP 

Drag the items on the left to show the different types of security for the shown devices. Not all fields need to be filled. Not all items need to be used. 

Answer:  

Explanation: 

Mobile Device Security GPS tracking Remote wipe 

Device Encryption 

Strong password 

Server in Data Center Security 

FM-200 

Biometrics 

Proximity Badges 

Mantrap 

For mobile devices, at bare minimum you should have the following security measures in place: 

Screen lock, Strong password, Device encryption, Remote wipe/Sanitation, voice encryption, GPS tracking, Application control, Storage segmentation, Asset tracking as well as Device Access control. 

For servers in a data center your security should include: Fire extinguishers such as FM200 as part of fire suppression; Biometric, proximity badges, mantraps, HVAC, cable locks; these can all be physical security measures to control access to the server. 

References: 

Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, 

Indianapolis, 2014, p 418 

Q10. During a disaster recovery planning session, a security administrator has been tasked with determining which threats and vulnerabilities pose a risk to the organization. Which of the following should the administrator rate as having the HIGHEST frequency of risk to the organization? 

A. Hostile takeovers 

B. Large scale natural disasters 

C. Malware and viruses 

D. Corporate espionage 

Answer:

Explanation: