[2021-New] CompTIA SY0-401 Dumps With Update Exam Questions (551-560)

SY0-401 Dumps

SY0-401 Exam Questions - Online Test

SY0-401 Premium VCE File

Learn More 100% Pass Guarantee - Dumps Verified - Instant Download
150 Lectures, 20 Hours

Q1. Which of the following relies on the use of shared secrets to protect communication?

A. RADIUS

B. Kerberos

C. PKI

D. LDAP

Answer: A

Explanation:

Obfuscated passwords are transmitted by the RADIUS protocol via a shared secret and the MD5 hashing algorithm.

Q2. A CRL is comprised of.

A. Malicious IP addresses.

B. Trusted CA’s.

C. Untrusted private keys.

D. Public keys.

Answer: D

Explanation:

A certificate revocation list (CRL) is created and distributed to all CAs to revoke a certificate or

key.

By checking the CRL you can check if a particular certificate has been revoked.

The certificates for which a CRL should be maintained are often X.509/public key certificates, as

this format is commonly used by PKI schemes.

Q3. A security team has identified that the wireless signal is broadcasting into the parking lot. To reduce the risk of an attack against the wireless network from the parking lot, which of the following controls should be used? (Select TWO).

A. Antenna placement

B. Interference

C. Use WEP

D. Single Sign on

E. Disable the SSID

F. Power levels

Answer: A,F

Explanation:

Placing the antenna in the correct position is crucial. You can then adjust the power levels to exclude the parking lot.

Q4. Which of the following describes a type of malware which is difficult to reverse engineer in a virtual lab?

A. Armored virus

B. Polymorphic malware

C. Logic bomb

D. Rootkit

Answer: A

Explanation:

An armored virus is a type of virus that has been designed to thwart attempts by analysts from examining its code by using various methods to make tracing, disassembling and reverse engineering more difficult. An Armored Virus may also protect itself from antivirus programs, making it more difficult to trace. To do this, the Armored Virus attempts to trick the antivirus program into believing its location is somewhere other than where it really is on the system.

Q5. NO: 81

A company is about to release a very large patch to its customers. An administrator is required to test patch installations several times prior to distributing them to customer PCs.

Which of the following should the administrator use to test the patching process quickly and often?

A. Create an incremental backup of an unpatched PC

B. Create an image of a patched PC and replicate it to servers

C. Create a full disk image to restore after each installation

D. Create a virtualized sandbox and utilize snapshots

Answer: D

Explanation:

Sandboxing is the process of isolating a system before installing new applications or patches on it

so as to restrict the software from being able to cause harm to production systems.

Before the patch is installed, a snapshot of the system should be taken. Snapshots are backups

that can be used to quickly recover from poor updates, and errors arising from newly installed

applications.

Q6. Which of the following can a security administrator implement on mobile devices that will help prevent unwanted people from viewing the data if the device is left unattended?

A. Screen lock

B. Voice encryption

C. GPS tracking

D. Device encryption

Answer: A

Explanation:

Screen-lock is a security feature that requires the user to enter a PIN or a password after a short period of inactivity before they can access the system again. This feature ensures that if your device is left unattended or is lost or stolen, it will be difficult for anyone else to access your data or applications.

Q7. FTP/S uses which of the following TCP ports by default?

A. 20 and 21

B. 139 and 445

C. 443 and 22

D. 989 and 990

Answer: D

Explanation: FTPS uses ports 989 and 990.

Q8. A computer is found to be infected with malware and a technician re-installs the operating system. The computer remains infected with malware. This is an example of:

A. a rootkit.

B. a MBR infection.

C. an exploit kit.

D. Spyware.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Q9. After a user performed a war driving attack, the network administrator noticed several similar markings where WiFi was available throughout the enterprise. Which of the following is the term used to describe these markings?

A. IV attack

B. War dialing

C. Rogue access points

D. War chalking

Answer: D

Explanation:

War chalking is the act of making chalk marks on outdoor surfaces (walls, sidewalks, buildings, sign posts, trees) to indicate the existence of an open wireless network connection, usually offering an Internet connection so that others can benefit from the free wireless access. The open connections typically come from the access points of wireless networks located within buildings to serve enterprises. The chalk symbols indicate the type of access point that is available at that specific spot.

Q10. A company is preparing to decommission an offline, non-networked root certificate server. Before sending the server’s drives to be destroyed by a contracted company, the Chief Security Officer (CSO) wants to be certain that the data will not be accessed. Which of the following, if implemented, would BEST reassure the CSO? (Select TWO).

A. Disk hashing procedures

B. Full disk encryption

C. Data retention policies

D. Disk wiping procedures

E. Removable media encryption

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

B: Full disk encryption is when the entire volume is encrypted; the data is not accessible to someone who might boot another operating system in an attempt to bypass the computer’s security. Full disk encryption is sometimes referred to as hard drive encryption.

D: Disk wiping is the process of overwriting data on the repeatedly, or using a magnet to alter the magnetic structure of the disks. This renders the data unreadable.