[2021-New] CompTIA SY0-401 Dumps With Update Exam Questions (421-430)

SY0-401 Dumps

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Q1. XYZ Corporation is about to purchase another company to expand its operations. The CEO is concerned about information leaking out, especially with the cleaning crew that comes in at night.

The CEO would like to ensure no paper files are leaked. Which of the following is the BEST policy to implement?

A. Social media policy

B. Data retention policy

C. CCTV policy

D. Clean desk policy

Answer: D

Explanation:

Clean Desk Policy Information on a desk—in terms of printouts, pads of note paper, sticky notes, and the like—can be easily seen by prying eyes and taken by thieving hands. To protect data and your business, encourage employees to maintain clean desks and to leave out only those papers that are relevant to the project they are working on at that moment. All sensitive information should be put away when the employee is away from their desk.

Q2. A security technician would like to obscure sensitive data within a file so that it can be transferred without causing suspicion. Which of the following technologies would BEST be suited to accomplish this?

A. Transport Encryption

B. Stream Encryption

C. Digital Signature

D. Steganography

Answer: D

Explanation:

Q3. While previously recommended as a security measure, disabling SSID broadcast is not effective against most attackers because network SSIDs are:

A. no longer used to authenticate to most wireless networks.

B. contained in certain wireless packets in plaintext.

C. contained in all wireless broadcast packets by default.

D. no longer supported in 802.11 protocols.

Answer: B

Explanation:

The SSID is still required for directing packets to and from the base station, so it can be discovered using a wireless packet sniffer.

Q4. While securing a network it is decided to allow active FTP connections into the network. Which of the following ports MUST be configured to allow active FTP connections? (Select TWO).

A. 20

B. 21

C. 22

D. 68

E. 69

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

Q5. An IT director is looking to reduce the footprint of their company’s server environment. They have decided to move several internally developed software applications to an alternate environment, supported by an external company. Which of the following BEST describes this arrangement?

A. Infrastructure as a Service

B. Storage as a Service

C. Platform as a Service

D. Software as a Service

Answer: A

Explanation:

Cloud users install operating-system images and their application software on the cloud infrastructure to deploy their applications. In this model, the cloud user patches and maintains the operating systems and the application software.

Q6. The system administrator is tasked with changing the administrator password across all 2000 computers in the organization. Which of the following should the system administrator implement to accomplish this task?

A. A security group

B. A group policy

C. Key escrow

D. Certificate revocation

Answer: B

Explanation:

Group policy is used to manage Windows systems in a Windows network domain environment by means of a Group Policy Object (GPO). GPO’s include a number of settings related to credentials, such as password complexity requirements, password history, password length, account lockout settings.

Q7. If Organization A trusts Organization B and Organization B trusts Organization C, then Organization A trusts Organization C. Which of the following PKI concepts is this describing?

A. Transitive trust

B. Public key trust

C. Certificate authority trust

D. Domain level trust

Answer: A

Explanation:

In transitive trusts, trust between a first party and a third party flows through a second party that is trusted by both the first party and the third party.

Q8. Jane, a security administrator, has been tasked with explaining authentication services to the company’s management team. The company runs an active directory infrastructure. Which of the following solutions BEST relates to the host authentication protocol within the company’s environment?

A. Kerberos

B. Least privilege

C. TACACS+

D. LDAP

Answer: A

Explanation:

Kerberos was accepted by Microsoft as the chosen authentication protocol for Windows 2000 and Active Directory domains that followed.

Q9. The system administrator has deployed updated security controls for the network to limit risk of attack. The security manager is concerned that controls continue to function as intended to maintain appropriate security posture.

Which of the following risk mitigation strategies is MOST important to the security manager?

A. User permissions

B. Policy enforcement

C. Routine audits

D. Change management

Answer: C

Explanation:

After you have implemented security controls based on risk, you must perform routine audits. These audits should include reviews of user rights and permissions as well as specific events. You should pay particular attention to false positives and negatives.

Q10. Matt, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO), tells the network administrator that a security company has been hired to perform a penetration test against his network. The security company asks Matt which type of testing would be most beneficial for him. Which of the following BEST describes what the security company might do during a black box test?

A. The security company is provided with all network ranges, security devices in place, and logical maps of the network.

B. The security company is provided with no information about the corporate network or physical locations.

C. The security company is provided with limited information on the network, including all network diagrams.

D. The security company is provided with limited information on the network, including some subnet ranges and logical network diagrams.

Answer: B

Explanation:

The term black box testing is generally associated with application testing. However, in this question the term is used for network testing. Black box testing means testing something when you have no knowledge of the inner workings.

Black-box testing is a method of software testing that examines the functionality of an application without peering into its internal structures or workings. This method of test can be applied to virtually every level of software testing: unit, integration, system and acceptance. It typically comprises most if not all higher level testing, but can also dominate unit testing as well. Specific knowledge of the application's code/internal structure and programming knowledge in general is not required. The tester is aware of what the software is supposed to do but is not aware of how it does it. For instance, the tester is aware that a particular input returns a certain, invariable output but is not aware of how the software produces the output in the first place.