NEW QUESTION 1

Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?

• A. Avoid
• B. Accept
• C. Mitigate
• D. Exploit

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

• A. Share
• B. Accept
• C. Mitigate
• D. Transfer

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

• A. assumption log.
• B. quality checklist.
• C. risk register.
• D. contract typ

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4

Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:

• A. corrective action.
• B. preventive action.
• C. non-conformance report,
• D. defect repai

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

• A. Acquisition
• B. Negotiation
• C. Virtual team
• D. Pre-assignment

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 6

How is the schedule variance calculated using the earned value technique?

• A. EV less AC
• B. AC less PV
• C. EV less PV
• D. AC less EV

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7

A project lifecycle is defined as:

• A. a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.
• B. a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.
• C. a recognized standard for the project management profession.
• D. the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirement

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8

Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?

• A. Supportive
• B. Directive
• C. Controlling
• D. Instructive

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000

• A. 1
• B. 0.4
• C. 0.5
• D. 0.8

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10

What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

• A. Cost aggregation
• B. Trend analysis
• C. Forecasting
• D. Variance analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11

Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

• A. Identify Risks
• B. Control Risks
• C. Plan Risk Management
• D. Plan Risk Responses

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12

The cost baseline and project funding requirements are outputs of which process in Project Cost Management?

• A. Estimate Costs
• B. Control Costs
• C. Plan Cost Management
• D. Determine Budget

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 13

One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:

• A. organization charts.
• B. ground rules.
• C. organizational theory,
• D. conflict managemen

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 14

The Human Resource Management processes are:

• A. Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team.
• B. Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team.
• C. Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team.
• D. Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Tea

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 15

Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:

• A. Expert judgment.
• B. Analytical techniques.
• C. Earned value management.
• D. Group decision-making technique

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 16

The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

• A. Sequence Activities
• B. Estimate Activity Resources
• C. Develop Schedule
• D. Control Schedule

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 17

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

• A. Inspection
• B. Variance analysis
• C. Expert judgment
• D. Decomposition

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 18

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:

• A. Continuous improvement.
• B. Predictive planning.
• C. Progressive elaboration.
• D. Quality assuranc

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 19

Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?

• A. Estimate Costs
• B. Plan Cost Management
• C. Determine Budget
• D. Control Costs

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 20

Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication?

• A. It includes letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes.
• B. It requires recipients to access communication content at their own discretion.
• C. It is the most efficient way to ensure a common understanding among all participants.
• D. It is primarily used when the volume of information to be transferred is minima

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 21

Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associatedWBSand WBS dictionary?

• A. Scope plan
• B. Product scope
• C. Scope management plan
• D. Scope baseline

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 22

Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?

• A. Functional managers and manager of project managers
• B. Functional managers only
• C. Project managers only
• D. Technical managers and project managers

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 23

Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

• A. updates.
• B. defect repairs.
• C. preventive actions.
• D. corrective action

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 24

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

• A. Sole-sum
• B. Win-lose
• C. Lose-win
• D. Partial-sum

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 25

Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

• A. Project statement of work
• B. Business case
• C. Accepted deliverable
• D. Work performance information

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 26
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