NEW QUESTION 1
Exhibit:

Compliance with company policy requires a quarterly review of firewall rules. You are asked to conduct a review on the internal firewall sitting between several internal networks. The intent of this firewall is to make traffic more secure. Given the following information perform the tasks listed below:
Untrusted zone: 0.0.0.0/0 User zone: USR 10.1.1.0/24 User zone: USR2 10.1.2.0/24 DB zone: 10.1.0/24
Web application zone: 10.1.5.0/24 Management zone: 10.1.10.0/24 Web server: 10.1.5.50
MS-SQL server: 10.1.4.70
MGMT platform: 10.1.10.250
Task 1) A rule was added to prevent the management platform from accessing the internet. This rule is not working. Identify the rule and correct this issue.
Task 2) The firewall must be configured so that the SQL server can only receive requests from the web server.
Task 3) The web server must be able to receive unencrypted requests from hosts inside and outside the corporate network.
Task 4) Ensure the final rule is an explicit deny.
Task 5) Currently the user zone can access internet websites over an unencrypted protocol. Modify a rule so that user access to websites is over secure protocols only.
Instructions: To perform the necessary tasks, please modify the DST port, SRC zone, Protocol, Action, and/or Rule Order columns. Type ANY to include all ports. Firewall ACLs are read from the top down.
Once you have met the simulation requirements, click Save. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue.

• A. Task 1: A rule was added to prevent the management platform from accessing the interne
• B. This rule is not workin
• C. Identify the rule and correct this issue.In Rule n
• D. 1 edit the Action to Deny to block internet access from the management platform.SRC Zone SRCSRC Port DST Zone DSTDST Port Protocol Action UNTRUST 10.1.10.250 ANY MGMT ANY ANY ANY DENYTask 2: The firewall must be configured so that the SQL server can only receive requests from the web server.In Rule n
• E. 6 from top, edit the Action to be Permi
• F. SRC ZoneSRCSRC Port DST Zone DSTDST Port Protocol Action DB 10.1.4.70 ANY WEBAPP 10.1.5.50 ANY ANY PERMITTask 3: The web server must be able to receive unencrypted requests from hosts inside and outside the corporate network.In rule n
• G. 5 from top, change the DST port to Any from 80 to allow all unencrypted traffi
• H. SRC ZoneSRCSRC Port DST Zone DSTDST Port Protocol Action UNTRUST ANYANY WEBAPP 10.1.5.50 ANY TCP PERMITTask 4: Ensure the final rule is an explicit denyEnter this at the bottom of the access list i.
• I. the line at the bottom of the rule: SRC ZoneSRCSRC Port DST Zone DSTDST Port Protocol Action ANY ANY ANY ANY ANY ANY TCP DENYTask 5: Currently the user zone can access internet websites over an unencrypted protoco
• J. Modify a rule so that user access to websites is over secure protocols only.In Rule number 4 from top, edit the DST port to 443 from 80 SRC ZoneSRCSRC Port DST Zone DSTDST Port Protocol Action USER10.1.1.0/24 10.1.2.0/24ANY UNTRUST ANY443TCP PERMIT
• K. Task 1: A rule was added to prevent the management platform from accessing the interne
• L. This rule is not workin
• M. Identify the rule and correct this issue.In Rule n
• N. 1 edit the Action to Deny to block internet access from the management platfor
• O. SRC ZoneSRCSRC Port DST Zone DSTDST Port Protocol Action UNTRUST 10.1.10.250 ANY MGMT ANY ANY ANY DENYTask 2: The firewall must be configured so that the SQL server can only receive requests from the web server.In Rule n
• P. 6 from top, edit the Action to be Permi
• Q. SRC ZoneSRCSRC Port DST Zone DSTDST Port Protocol Action DB 10.1.4.70 ANY WEBAPP 10.1.5.50 ANY ANY PERMITTask 3: The web server must be able to receive unencrypted requests from hosts inside and outside the corporate network.In rule n
• R. 5 from top, change the DST port to Any from 80 to allow all unencrypted traffi
• S. SRC ZoneANY ANY ANY TCP DENYTask 5: Currently the user zone can access internet websites over an unencrypted protoco
• T. Modify a rule so that user access to websites is over secure protocols only.In Rule number 4 from top, edit the DST port to 443 from 80 SRC ZoneSRCSRC PortDST Zone DSTDST Port Protocol Action USER10.1.1.0/24 10.1.2.0/24ANY UNTRUST ANY443TCP PERMIT

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
A member of the software development team has requested advice from the security team to implement a new secure lab for testing malware. Which of the following is the NEXT step that the security team should take?

• A. Purchase new hardware to keep the malware isolated.
• B. Develop a policy to outline what will be required in the secure lab.
• C. Construct a series of VMs to host the malware environment.
• D. Create a proposal and present it to management for approva

Answer: D

Explanation:
Before we can create a solution, we need to motivate why the solution needs to be created and plan
the best implementation with in the company’s business operations. We therefore need to create a proposal that explains the intended implementation and allows for the company to budget for it. Incorrect Answers:
A: Purchasing of equipment cannot take place before approval for the purchases have been obtained. B: A proposal, rather than a policy, of what will be required in the secure lab needs to be created. A policy is a document that outlines person responsible and the standards that must be upheld to meet minimum corporate governance requirements.
C: Virtual machines (VMs) allows for multiple operating systems to run simultaneously on a single host. However, viruses, worms, and malware also have the potential to migrate from one virtual machine to another and to the host machine.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 96, 219, 232, 371

NEW QUESTION 3
An engineer maintains a corporate-owned mobility infrastructure, and the organization requires that all web browsing using corporate-owned resources be monitored. Which of the following would allow the organization to meet its requirement? (Choose two.)

• A. Exempt mobile devices from the requirement, as this will lead to privacy violations
• B. Configure the devices to use an always-on IPSec VPN
• C. Configure all management traffic to be tunneled into the enterprise via TLS
• D. Implement a VDI solution and deploy supporting client apps to devices
• E. Restrict application permissions to establish only HTTPS connections outside of the enterprise boundary

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 4
A user workstation was infected with a new malware variant as a result of a drive-by download. The security administrator reviews key controls on the infected workstation and discovers the following:

Which of the following would BEST prevent the problem from reoccurring in the future? (Choose two.)

• A. Install HIPS
• B. Enable DLP
• C. Install EDR
• D. Install HIDS
• E. Enable application blacklisting
• F. Improve patch management processes

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 5
Company XYZ has purchased and is now deploying a new HTML5 application. The company wants to hire a penetration tester to evaluate the security of the client and server components of the
proprietary web application before launch. Which of the following is the penetration tester MOST likely to use while performing black box testing of the security of the company’s purchased
application? (Select TWO).

• A. Code review
• B. Sandbox
• C. Local proxy
• D. Fuzzer
• E. Port scanner

Answer: CD

Explanation:
C: Local proxy will work by proxying traffic between the web client and the web server. This is a tool that can be put to good effect in this case.
D: Fuzzing is another form of blackbox testing and works by feeding a program multiple input iterations that are specially written to trigger an internal error that might indicate a bug and crash it. Incorrect Answers:
A: A Code review refers to the examination of an application (the new HTML5 application in this case) that is designed to identify and assess threats to the organization. But this is not the most likely test to be carried out when performing black box testing.
B: Application sandboxing refers to the process of writing files to a temporary storage are (the socalled sandbox) so that you limit the ability of possible malicious code to execute on your computer.
E: Port scanning is used to scan TCP and UDP ports and report on their status. You can thus determine which services are running on a targeted computer.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 147, 154, 168-169, 174

NEW QUESTION 6
A company contracts a security engineer to perform a penetration test of its client-facing web portal. Which of the following activities would be MOST appropriate?

• A. Use a protocol analyzer against the site to see if data input can be replayed from the browser
• B. Scan the website through an interception proxy and identify areas for the code injection
• C. Scan the site with a port scanner to identify vulnerable services running on the web server
• D. Use network enumeration tools to identify if the server is running behind a load balancer

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7
A breach was caused by an insider threat in which customer PII was compromised. Following the breach, a lead security analyst is asked to determine which vulnerabilities the attacker used to access company resources. Which of the following should the analyst use to remediate the vulnerabilities?

• A. Protocol analyzer
• B. Root cause analyzer
• C. Behavioral analytics
• D. Data leak prevention

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8
A deployment manager is working with a software development group to assess the security of a
new version of the organization’s internally developed ERP tool. The organization prefers to not perform assessment activities following deployment, instead focusing on assessing security throughout the life cycle. Which of the following methods would BEST assess the security of the product?

• A. Static code analysis in the IDE environment
• B. Penetration testing of the UAT environment
• C. Vulnerability scanning of the production environment
• D. Penetration testing of the production environment
• E. Peer review prior to unit testing

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
An organization is concerned with potential data loss in the event of a disaster, and created a backup datacenter as a mitigation strategy. The current storage method is a single NAS used by all servers in both datacenters. Which of the following options increases data availability in the event of a datacenter failure?

• A. Replicate NAS changes to the tape backups at the other datacenter.
• B. Ensure each server has two HBAs connected through two routes to the NAS.
• C. Establish deduplication across diverse storage paths.
• D. Establish a SAN that replicates between datacenters.

Answer: D

Explanation:
A SAN is a Storage Area Network. It is an alternative to NAS storage. SAN replication is a technology that replicates the data on one SAN to another SAN; in this case, it would replicate the data to a SAN in the backup datacenter. In the event of a disaster, the SAN in the backup datacenter would contain all the data on the original SAN.
Array-based replication is an approach to data backup in which compatible storage arrays use built-in software to automatically copy data from one storage array to another. Array-based replication software runs on one or more storage controllers resident in disk storage systems, synchronously or asynchronously replicating data between similar storage array models at the logical unit number (LUN) or volume block level. The term can refer to the creation of local copies of data within the same array as the source data, as well as the creation of remote copies in an array situated off site. Incorrect Answers:
A: Replicating NAS changes to the tape backups at the other datacenter would result in a copy of the NAS data in the backup datacenter. However, the data will be stored on tape. In the event of a disaster, you would need another NAS to restore the data to.
B: Ensuring that each server has two routes to the NAS is not a viable solution. The NAS is still a single point of failure. In the event of a disaster, you could lose the NAS and all the data on it.
C: Deduplication is the process of eliminating multiple copies of the same data to save storage space. The NAS is still a single point of failure. In the event of a disaster, you could lose the NAS and all the data on it.
References:
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cation

NEW QUESTION 10
An enterprise must ensure that all devices that connect to its networks have been previously approved. The solution must support dual factor mutual authentication with strong identity assurance. In order to reduce costs and administrative overhead, the security architect wants to outsource identity proofing and second factor digital delivery to the third party. Which of the following solutions will address the enterprise requirements?

• A. Implementing federated network access with the third party.
• B. Using a HSM at the network perimeter to handle network device access.
• C. Using a VPN concentrator which supports dual factor via hardware tokens.
• D. Implementing 802.1x with EAP-TTLS across the infrastructur

Answer: D

Explanation:
IEEE 802.1X (also known as Dot1x) is an IEEE Standard for Port-based Network Access Control (PNAC). It is part of the IEEE 802.1 group of networking protocols. It provides an authentication mechanism to devices wishing to attach to a LAN or WLAN.
802.1X authentication involves three parties: a supplicant, an authenticator, and an authentication server. The supplicant is a client device (such as a laptop) that wishes to attach to the LAN/WLAN - though the term 'supplicant' is also used interchangeably to refer to the software running on the client that provides credentials to the authenticator. The authenticator is a network device, such as an Ethernet switch or wireless access point; and the authentication server is typically a host running software supporting the RADIUS and EAP protocols.
The authenticator acts like a security guard to a protected network. The supplicant (i.e., client device) is not allowed access through the authenticator to the protected side of the network until the supplicant’s identity has been validated and authorized. An analogy to this is providing a valid visa at the airport's arrival immigration before being allowed to enter the country. With 802.1X port-based authentication, the supplicant provides credentials, such as user name/password or digital
certificate, to the authenticator, and the authenticator forwards the credentials to the authentication server for verification. If the authentication server determines the credentials are valid, the supplicant (client device) is allowed to access resources located on the protected side of the network.
EAP-TTLS (Tunneled Transport Layer Security) is designed to provide authentication that is as strong as EAP-TLS, but it does not require that each user be issued a certificate. Instead, only the authentication servers are issued certificates. User authentication is performed by password, but the password credentials are transported in a securely encrypted tunnel established based upon the
server certificates. Incorrect Answers:
A: Federated network access provides user access to networks by using a single logon. The logon is authenticated by a party that is trusted to all the networks. It does not ensure that all devices that connect to its networks have been previously approved.
B: A hardware security module (HSM) is a physical computing device that safeguards and manages digital keys for strong authentication and provides cryptoprocessing. It does not ensure that all devices that connect to its networks have been previously approved.
C: A VPN concentrator provides VPN connections and is typically used for creating site-to-site VPN architectures. It does not ensure that all devices that connect to its networks have been previously approved.
References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IEEE_802.1X
https://www.juniper.net/techpubs/software/aHYPERLINK "https://www.juniper.net/techpubs/software/aaa_802/sbrc/sbrc70/sw-sbrc-admin/html/EAP- 024.html"aa_802/HYPERLINK "https://www.juniper.net/techpubs/software/aaa_802/sbrc/sbrc70/sw-sbrc-admin/html/EAP- 024.html"sbrc/sbrc70/sw-sbrc-admin/html/EAP-024.html

NEW QUESTION 11
A developer is determining the best way to improve security within the code being developed. The developer is focusing on input fields where customers enter their credit card details. Which of the following techniques, if implemented in the code, would be the MOST effective in protecting the fields from malformed input?

• A. Client side input validation
• B. Stored procedure
• C. Encrypting credit card details
• D. Regular expression matching

Answer: D

Explanation:
Regular expression matching is a technique for reading and validating input, particularly in web software. This question is asking about securing input fields where customers enter their credit card details. In this case, the expected input into the credit card number field would be a sequence of numbers of a certain length. We can use regular expression matching to verify that the input is indeed a sequence of numbers. Anything that is not a sequence of numbers could be malicious code. Incorrect Answers:
A: Client side input validation could be used to validate the input into input fields. Client side input validation is where the validation is performed by the web browser. However this question is asking for the BEST answer. A user with malicious intent could bypass the client side input validation whereas it would be much more difficult to bypass regular expression matching implemented in the application code.
B: A stored procedure is SQL code saved as a script. A SQL user can run the stored procedure rather than typing all the SQL code contained in the stored procedure. A stored procedure is not used for
validating input.
C: Any stored credit card details should be encrypted for security purposes. Also a secure method of transmission such as SSL or TLS should be used to encrypt the data when transmitting the credit card number over a network such as the Internet. However, encrypting credit card details is not a way of securing the input fields in an application.

NEW QUESTION 12
A team is at the beginning stages of designing a new enterprise-wide application. The new application will have a large database and require a capital investment in hardware. The Chief Information Officer (?IO) has directed the team to save money and reduce the reliance on the datacenter, and the vendor must specialize in hosting large databases in the cloud. Which of the following cloud-hosting options would BEST meet these needs?

• A. Multi-tenancy SaaS
• B. Hybrid IaaS
• C. Single-tenancy PaaS
• D. Community IaaS

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 13
An application present on the majority of an organization’s 1,000 systems is vulnerable to a buffer overflow attack. Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive way to resolve the issue?

• A. Deploy custom HIPS signatures to detect and block the attacks.
• B. Validate and deploy the appropriate patch.
• C. Run the application in terminal services to reduce the threat landscape.
• D. Deploy custom NIPS signatures to detect and block the attack

Answer: B

Explanation:
If an application has a known issue (such as susceptibility to buffer overflow attacks) and a patch is released to resolve the specific issue, then the best solution is always to deploy the patch.
A buffer overflow occurs when a program or process tries to store more data in a buffer (temporary data storage area) than it was intended to hold. Since buffers are created to contain a finite amount of data, the extra information - which has to go somewhere - can overflow into adjacent buffers,
corrupting or overwriting the valid data held in them. Although it may occur accidentally through programming error, buffer overflow is an increasingly common type of security attack on data integrity. In buffer overflow attacks, the extra data may contain codes designed to trigger specific actions, in effect sending new instructions to the attacked computer that could, for example, damage the user's files, change data, or disclose confidential information. Buffer overflow attacks are said to have arisen because the C programming language supplied the framework, and poor programming practices supplied the vulnerability.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This question is asking for the MOST comprehensive way to resolve the issue. A HIPS (Host Intrusion Prevention System) with custom signatures may offer some protection against an application that is vulnerable to buffer overflow attacks. However, an application that is NOT vulnerable to buffer overflow attacks (a patched application) is a better solution.
C: This question is asking for the MOST comprehensive way to resolve the issue. Running the application in terminal services may reduce the threat landscape. However, it doesn’t resolve the issue. Patching the application to eliminate the threat is a better solution.
D: This question is asking for the MOST comprehensive way to resolve the issue. A NIPS (Network Intrusion Prevention System) with custom signatures may offer some protection against an application that is vulnerable to buffer overflow attacks. However, an application that is NOT vulnerable to buffer overflow attacks (a patched application) is a better solution.
References: http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/buffer-overflow

NEW QUESTION 14
A systems administrator recently joined an organization and has been asked to perform a security assessment of controls on the organization’s file servers, which contain client data from a number of sensitive systems. The administrator needs to compare documented access requirements to the access implemented within the file system.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be reviewed during the assessment? (Select two.)

• A. Access control list
• B. Security requirements traceability matrix
• C. Data owner matrix
• D. Roles matrix
• E. Data design document
• F. Data access policies

Answer: DF

NEW QUESTION 15
A large enterprise acquires another company which uses antivirus from a different vendor. The CISO has requested that data feeds from the two different antivirus platforms be combined in a way that allows management to assess and rate the overall effectiveness of antivirus across the entire organization. Which of the following tools can BEST meet the CISO’s requirement?

• A. GRC
• B. IPS
• C. CMDB
• D. Syslog-ng
• E. IDS

Answer: A

Explanation:
GRC is a discipline that aims to coordinate information and activity across governance, risk management and compliance with the purpose of operating more efficiently, enabling effective information sharing, more effectively reporting activities and avoiding wasteful overlaps. An integrated GRC (iGRC) takes data feeds from one or more sources that detect or sense abnormalities, faults or other patterns from security or business applications.
Incorrect Answers:
B: IPS is a typical sensor type that is included in an iGRC.
C: A configuration management database (CMDB) is defined as a repository that acts as a data warehouse for IT organizations.
D: syslog-ng sends incoming log messages from specified sources to the correct destinations. E: IDS is a typical sensor type that is included in an iGRC.
References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wHYPERLINK
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NEW QUESTION 16
An advanced threat emulation engineer is conducting testing against a client’s network. The engineer conducts the testing in as realistic a manner as possible. Consequently, the engineer has been gradually ramping up the volume of attacks over a long period of time. Which of the following combinations of techniques would the engineer MOST likely use in this testing? (Choose three.)

• A. Black box testing
• B. Gray box testing
• C. Code review
• D. Social engineering
• E. Vulnerability assessment
• F. Pivoting
• G. Self-assessment
• H. White teaming
• I. External auditing

Answer: AEF

NEW QUESTION 17
A security engineer is attempting to convey the importance of including job rotation in a company’s standard security policies. Which of the following would be the BEST justification?

• A. Making employees rotate through jobs ensures succession plans can be implemented and prevents single point of failure.
• B. Forcing different people to perform the same job minimizes the amount of time malicious actions go undetected by forcing malicious actors to attempt collusion between two or more people.
• C. Administrators and engineers who perform multiple job functions throughout the day benefit from being cross-trained in new job areas.
• D. It eliminates the need to share administrative account passwords because employees gain administrative rights as they rotate into a new job area.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 18
After embracing a BYOD policy, a company is faced with new security challenges from unmanaged mobile devices and laptops. The company’s IT department has seen a large number of the following incidents:
Duplicate IP addresses Rogue network devices
Infected systems probing the company’s network
Which of the following should be implemented to remediate the above issues? (Choose two.)

• A. Port security
• B. Route protection
• C. NAC
• D. HIPS
• E. NIDS

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 19
A security auditor suspects two employees of having devised a scheme to steal money from the company. While one employee submits purchase orders for personal items, the other employee approves these purchase orders. The auditor has contacted the human resources director with suggestions on how to detect such illegal activities. Which of the following should the human resource director implement to identify the employees involved in these activities and reduce the risk of this activity occurring in the future?

• A. Background checks
• B. Job rotation
• C. Least privilege
• D. Employee termination procedures

Answer: B

Explanation:
Job rotation can reduce fraud or misuse by preventing an individual from having too much control over an area.
Incorrect Answers:
A: To verify that a potential employee has a clean background and that any negative history is exposed prior to employment, a background check is used.
C: The principle of least privilege prevents employees from accessing levels not required to perform their everyday function.
D: The employee termination procedures will not identify the employees involved in these activities and reduce the risk of this activity occurring in the future.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 243, 245, 246

NEW QUESTION 20
An insurance company is looking to purchase a smaller company in another country. Which of the following tasks would the security administrator perform as part of the security due diligence?

• A. Review switch and router configurations
• B. Review the security policies and standards
• C. Perform a network penetration test
• D. Review the firewall rule set and IPS logs

Answer: B

Explanation:
IT security professionals should have a chance to review the security controls and practices of a company targeted for acquisition. Any irregularities that are found should be reported to management so that expenses and concerns are properly identified.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Due diligence entails ensuring controls implemented by an organization continues to provide the required level of protection. Reviewing switch and router configurations are not part of this process. C: Due diligence entails ensuring controls implemented by an organization continues to provide the required level of protection. Performing a network penetration test is not part of this process.
D: Due diligence entails ensuring controls implemented by an organization continues to provide the required level of protection. Reviewing the firewall rule set and IPS logs are not part of this process. References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 270, 332

NEW QUESTION 21
......