NEW QUESTION 1

A security operations center wants to implement a solution that can execute files to test for malicious activity. The solution should provide a report of the files' activity against known threats.
Which of the following should the security operations center implement?

• A. theHarvester
• B. Nessus
• C. Cuckoo
• D. Sn1per

Answer: C

Explanation:
Cuckoo is a sandbox that is specifically written to run programs inside and identify any malware. A sandbox is a virtualized environment that isolates the program from the rest of the system and monitors its behavior. Cuckoo can analyze files of various types, such as executables, documents, URLs, and more. Cuckoo can provide a report of the files’ activity against known threats, such as network traffic, file operations, registry changes, API calls, and so on.
A security operations center can implement Cuckoo to execute files to test for malicious activity and generate a report of the analysis. Cuckoo can help the security operations center to detect and prevent malware infections, investigate incidents, and perform threat intelligence.

NEW QUESTION 2

An IT manager is estimating the mobile device budget for the upcoming year. Over the last five years, the number of devices that were replaced due to loss, damage, or theft steadily increased by 10%. Which of the following would best describe the estimated number of devices to be replaced next year?

• A. SLA
• B. ARO
• C. RPO
• D. SLE

Answer: B

Explanation:
ARO stands for annualized rate of occurrence, which is a metric that estimates how often a threat event will occur within a year. ARO can help an IT manager estimate the mobile device budget for the upcoming year by multiplying the number of devices replaced in the previous year by the percentage increase of replacement over the last five years. For example, if 100 devices were replaced in the previous year and the replacement rate increased by 10% each year for the last five years, then the estimated number of devices to be replaced next year is 100 x (1 + 0.1)^5 = 161.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24866/annualized-rate-of-occurrence-aro

NEW QUESTION 3

A web server log contains two million lines. A security analyst wants to obtain the next 500 lines starting from line 4,600. Which of the following commands will help the security analyst to achieve this objective?

• A. cat webserver.log | head -4600 | tail +500 |
• B. cat webserver.log | tail -1995400 | tail -500 |
• C. cat webserver.log | tail -4600 | head -500 |
• D. cat webserver.log | head -5100 | tail -500 |

Answer: D

Explanation:
the cat command displays the contents of a file, the head command displays the first lines of a file, and the
tail command displays the last lines of a file. To display a specific number of lines from a file, you can use a
minus sign followed by a number as an option for head or tail. For example, head -10 will display the first 10 lines of a file.
To obtain the next 500 lines starting from line 4,600, you need to use both head and tail commands. https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/file-manipulation-tools/

NEW QUESTION 4

Which of the following would be the best resource for a software developer who is looking to improve secure coding practices for web applications?

• A. OWASP
• B. Vulnerability scan results
• C. NIST CSF
• D. Third-party libraries

Answer: A

Explanation:
OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) is a non-profit organization that provides resources and guidance for improving the security of web applications. It can be the best resource for a software developer who is looking to improve secure coding practices for web applications by offering various tools, frameworks, standards, cheat sheets, testing guides, etc., that cover various aspects of web application security development and testing

NEW QUESTION 5

Which of the following would help ensure a security analyst is able to accurately measure the overall risk to an organization when a new vulnerability is disclosed?

• A. A full inventory of all hardware and software
• B. Documentation of system classifications
• C. A list of system owners and their departments
• D. Third-party risk assessment documentation

Answer: A

Explanation:
A full inventory of all hardware and software would help ensure a security analyst is able to accurately measure the overall risk to an organization when a new vulnerability is disclosed, as it would allow the analyst to identify which systems and applications are affected by the vulnerability and prioritize the remediation efforts accordingly. A full inventory would also help the analyst to determine the impact and likelihood of a successful exploit, as well as the potential loss of confidentiality, integrity and availability of the data and services. References:
https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/
https://www.comptia.org/landing/securityplus/index.html
https://www.comptia.org/blog/complete-guide-to-risk-management

NEW QUESTION 6

An organization wants to secure a LAN/WLAN so users can authenticate and transport data securely. The solution needs to prevent on-path attacks and evil twin attacks. Which of the following will best meet the organization's need?

• A. MFA
• B. 802.1X
• C. WPA2
• D. TACACS

Answer: B

Explanation:
* 802.1 X is a standard for network access control that provides authentication and encryption for devices that connect to a LAN/WLAN. 802.1X uses the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) to exchange authentication messages between a supplicant (the device requesting access), an authenticator (the device granting access), and an authentication server (the device verifying credentials). 802.1X can prevent on-path attacks and evil twin attacks by requiring users to provide valid credentials before accessing the network and encrypting the data transmitted over the network.
On-path attacks are attacks that involve intercepting or modifying network traffic between two endpoints. An on-path attacker can eavesdrop on sensitive information, alter or inject malicious data, or redirect traffic to malicious destinations. On-path attacks are frequently perpetrated over WiFi network1s.
Evil twin attacks are attacks that involve setting up a fake WiFi access point that mimics a legitimate one. An evil twin attacker can trick users into connecting to the fake network and then monitor or manipulate their online activity. Evil twin attacks are more common on public WiFi networks that are unsecured and leave personal data vulnerable23.

NEW QUESTION 7

Which of the following incident response phases should the proper collection of the detected 'ocs and establishment of a chain of custody be performed before?

• A. Containment
• B. Identification
• C. Preparation
• D. Recovery

Answer: A

Explanation:
Containment is the phase where the incident response team tries to isolate and stop the spread of the incident12. Before containing the incident, the team should collect and preserve any evidence that may be useful for analysis and investigation12. This includes documenting the incident details, such as date, time, location, source, and impact12. It also includes establishing a chain of custody, which is a record of who handled the evidence, when, where, how, and why3. A chain of custody ensures the integrity and admissibility of the evidence in court or other legal proceedings3.

NEW QUESTION 8

A cybersecurity administrator needs to implement a Layer 7 security control on a network and block potential attacks. Which of the following can block an attack at Layer 7? (Select TWO).

• A. HIDS
• B. NIPS
• C. HSM
• D. WAF
• E. NAC
• F. NIDS
• G. Stateless firewall

Answer: DF

Explanation:
A WAF (Web Application Firewall) and NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System) are both examples of Layer 7 security controls. A WAF can block attacks at the application layer (Layer 7) of the OSI model by filtering traffic to and from a web server. NIDS can also detect attacks at Layer 7 by monitoring network traffic for suspicious patterns and behaviors. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, pages 94-95, 116-118

NEW QUESTION 9

Which Of the following will provide the best physical security countermeasures to Stop intruders? (Select two).

• A. Alarm
• B. Signage
• C. Lighting
• D. Access control vestibules
• E. Fencing
• F. Sensors

Answer: CE

Explanation:
Lighting and fencing are physical security countermeasures that can deter or stop intruders from accessing a facility or an asset. Lighting can increase visibility and reduce hiding spots for intruders, while fencing can create a physical barrier and limit access points for intruders.

NEW QUESTION 10

A technician is setting up a new firewall on a network segment to allow web traffic to the internet while hardening the network. After the firewall is configured, users receive errors stating the website could not be located. Which of the following would best correct the issue?

• A. Setting an explicit deny to all traffic using port 80 instead of 443
• B. Moving the implicit deny from the bottom of the rule set to the top
• C. Configuring the first line in the rule set to allow all traffic
• D. Ensuring that port 53 has been explicitly allowed in the rule set

Answer: D

Explanation:
Port 53 is the default port for DNS traffic. If the firewall is blocking port 53, then users will not be able to resolve domain names and will receive errors stating that the website could not be located.
The other options would not correct the issue. Setting an explicit deny to all traffic using port 80 instead of 443 would block all HTTP traffic, not just web traffic. Moving the implicit deny from the bottom of the rule set to the top would make the deny rule more restrictive, which would not solve the issue. Configuring the first line in the rule set to allow all traffic would allow all traffic, including malicious traffic, which is not a good security practice.
Therefore, the best way to correct the issue is to ensure that port 53 has been explicitly allowed in the rule set. Here are some additional information about DNS traffic:
DNS traffic is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses.
DNS traffic is typically unencrypted, which makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping.
There are a number of ways to secure DNS traffic, such as using DNS over HTTPS (DoH) or DNS over TLS (DoT).

NEW QUESTION 11

A cybersecurity analyst at Company A is working to establish a secure communication channel with a counter part at Company B, which is 3,000 miles (4.828 kilometers) away. Which of the following concepts would help the analyst meet this goal m a secure manner?

• A. Digital signatures
• B. Key exchange
• C. Salting
• D. PPTP

Answer: B

Explanation:
Key exchange Short
Key exchange is the process of securely sharing cryptographic keys between two parties over a public network. This allows them to establish a secure communication channel and encrypt their messages. There are different methods of key exchange, such as Diffie-Hellman or RSA. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-encryption

NEW QUESTION 12

Which of the following procedures would be performed after the root cause of a security incident has been identified to help avoid future incidents from occurring?

• A. Walk-throughs
• B. Lessons learned
• C. Attack framework alignment
• D. Containment

Answer: B

Explanation:
After the root cause of a security incident has been identified, it is important to take the time to analyze what went wrong and how it could have been prevented. This process is known as “lessons learned” and allows organizations to identify potential improvements to their security processes and protocols. Lessons learned typically involve a review of the incident and the steps taken to address it, a review of the security systems and procedures in place, and an analysis of any potential changes that can be made to prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future.

NEW QUESTION 13

one of the attendees starts to notice delays in the connection. and the HTTPS site requests are reverting to HTTP. Which of the following BEST describes what is happening?

• A. Birthday collision on the certificate key
• B. DNS hacking to reroute traffic
• C. Brute force to the access point
• D. A SSL/TLS downgrade

Answer: D

Explanation:
The scenario describes a Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack where the attacker intercepts traffic and downgrades the secure SSL/TLS connection to an insecure HTTP connection. This type of attack is commonly known as SSL/TLS downgrade attack or a stripping attack. The attacker is able to see and modify the communication between the client and server.

NEW QUESTION 14

A government organization is developing an advanced Al defense system. Develop-ers are using information collected from third-party providers Analysts are no-ticing inconsistencies in the expected powers Of then learning and attribute the Outcome to a recent attack on one of the suppliers. Which of the following IS the most likely reason for the inaccuracy of the system?

• A. Improper algorithms security
• B. Tainted training data
• C. virus
• D. Cryptomalware

Answer: B

Explanation:
Tainted training data is a type of data poisoning attack that involves modifying or injecting malicious data into the training dataset of a machine learning or artificial intelligence system. It can cause the system to learn incorrect or biased patterns and produce inaccurate or malicious outcomes. It is the most likely reason for the inaccuracy of the system that is using information collected from third-party providers that have been compromised by an attacker.

NEW QUESTION 15

A user enters a password to log in to a workstation and is then prompted to enter an authentication code Which of the following MFA factors or attributes are being utilized in the authentication process? {Select two).

• A. Something you know
• B. Something you have
• C. Somewhere you are
• D. Someone you know
• E. Something you are
• F. Something you can do

Answer: AB

Explanation:
MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication) is a method of verifying a user’s identity by requiring two or more factors or attributes that belong to different categories. The categories are something you know (such as a password or a PIN), something you have (such as a token or a smart card), something you are (such as a fingerprint or an iris scan), something you do (such as a gesture or a voice command), and somewhere you are (such as a location or an IP address). In this case, the user enters a password (something you know) and then receives an authentication code (something you have) to log in to a workstation.

NEW QUESTION 16

A security analyst is reviewing packet capture data from a compromised host On the In the packet capture. analyst locates packets that contain large of text, Which Of following is most likely installed on compromised host?

• A. Keylogger
• B. Spyware
• C. Torjan
• D. Ransomware

Answer: A

Explanation:
A keylogger is a type of malware that records the keystrokes of the user and sends them to a remote attacker. The attacker can use the keystrokes to steal the user’s credentials, personal information, or other sensitive data. A keylogger can generate packets that contain large amounts of text, as the packet capture data shows.

NEW QUESTION 17

A network penetration tester has successfully gained access to a target machine. Which of the following should the penetration tester do next?

• A. Clear the log files of all evidence
• B. Move laterally to another machine.
• C. Establish persistence for future use.
• D. Exploit a zero-day vulnerability.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Establishing persistence for future use is the next step that a network penetration tester should do after gaining access to a target machine. Persistence means creating a backdoor or a covert channel that allows the penetration tester to maintain access to the target machine even if the initial exploit is patched or the connection is lost. Persistence can be achieved by installing malware, creating hidden user accounts, modifying registry keys, or setting up remote access tools. Establishing persistence can help the penetration tester to perform further reconnaissance, move laterally to other machines, or exfiltrate data from the target network.

NEW QUESTION 18
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