[2021-New] Cisco 200-125 Dumps With Update Exam Questions (2-11)

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New Cisco 200-125 Exam Dumps Collection (Question 2 - Question 11)

Q1. What Netflow component can be applied to an interface to track IPv4 traffic?

A. flow monitor

B. flow record

C. flow sampler

D. flow exporter

Answer: A

Explanation:

Flow monitors are the Flexible NetFlow component that is applied to interfaces to perform network traffic monitoring. Flow monitors consist of a record and a cache. You add the record to the flow monitor after you create the flow monitor. The flow monitor cache is automatically created at the time the flow monitor is applied to the first interface. Flow data is collected from the network traffic during the monitoring process based on the key and nonkey fields in the record, which is configured for the flow monitor and stored in the flow monitor cache.

For example, the following example creates a flow monitor named FLOW-MONITOR-1 and enters Flexible NetFlow flow monitor configuration mode:

Router(config)# flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 Router(config-flow-monitor)#

Q2. Refer to the exhibit.

All devices attached to the network are shown. Which number of collision domains are present in this network?

A. 9

B. 3

C. 6

D. 2

E. 15

Answer: E

Q3. Scenario:

Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three

other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.

You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.

R1 does not form an OSPF neighbor adjacency with R2. Which option would fix the issue?

A. R1 ethernet0/1 is shutdown. Configure no shutdown command.

B. R1 ethernet0/1 configured with a non-default OSPF hello interval of 25; configure no ip ospf hello-interval 25.

C. R2 ethernet0/1 and R3 ethernet0/0 are configured with a non-default OSPF hello

interval of 25; configure no ip ospf hello-interval 25.

D. Enable OSPF for R1 ethernet0/1; configure ip ospf 1 area 0 command under ethernet0/1.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Looking at the configuration of R1, we see that R1 is configured with a hello interval of 25 on interface Ethernet 0/1 while R2 is left with the default of 10 (not configured).

Q4. In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?

A. during high traffic periods

B. after broken links are re-established

C. when upper-layer protocols require high reliability

D. in an improperly implemented redundant topology

E. when a dual ring topology is in use

Answer: D

Explanation:

If we connect two switches via 2 or more links and do not enable STP on these switches then a loop (which creates multiple copies of the same unicast frame) will occur. It is an example of an improperly implemented redundant topology.

Q5. On which options are standard access lists based?

A. destination address and wildcard mask

B. destination address and subnet mask

C. source address and subnet mask

D. source address and wildcard mask

Answer: D

Explanation:

Standard ACLu2021s only examine the source IP address/mask to determine if a match is made. Extended ACLu2021s examine the source and destination address, as well as port information.

Q6. What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.)

A. NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enabled.

B. NAT eliminates the need to re-address all hosts that require external access.

C. NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing.

D. Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network.

E. NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets.

F. NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.

Answer: B,F

Explanation:

By not revealing the internal IP addresses, NAT adds some security to the inside network -

> F is correct.

NAT has to modify the source IP addresses in the packets -> E is not correct.

Connection from the outside of the network through a u201cNATu201d network is more difficult than a more network because IP addresses of inside hosts are hidden -> C is not correct.

In order for IPsec to work with NAT we need to allow additional protocols, including Internet Key Exchange (IKE), Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) and Authentication Header (AH) -> more complex -> A is not correct.

By allocating specific public IP addresses to inside hosts, NAT eliminates the need to re- address the inside hosts -> B is correct.

NAT does conserve addresses but not through host MAC-level multiplexing. It conserves addresses by allowing many private IP addresses to use the same public IP address to go to the Internet -> C is not correct.

Q7. Scenario

Refer to the topology. Your company has connected the routers R1, R2, and R3 with serial links. R2 and R3 are connected to the switches SW1 and SW2, respectively. SW1 and SW2 are also connected to the routers R4 and R5.

The EIGRP routing protocol is configured.

You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers.

Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues.

The loopback interfaces on R4 with the IP addresses of 10.4.4.4/32, 10.4.4.5/32, and 10.4.4.6/32 are not appearing in the routing table of R5. Why are the interfaces missing?

A. The interfaces are shutdown, so they are not being advertised.

B. R4 has been incorrectly configured to be in another AS, so it does not peer with R5.

C. Automatic summarization is enabled, so only the 10.0.0.0 network is displayed.

D. The loopback addresses haven't been advertised, and the network command is missing on R4.

Answer: B

Explanation:

For an EIGRP neighbor to form, the following must match:

- Neighbors must be in the same subnet

- K values

- AS numbers

- Authentication method and key strings

Here, we see that R4 is configured for EIGRP AS 2, when it should be AS 1.

Q8. Refer to the exhibit.

Which address range efficiently summarizes the routing table of the addresses for router Main?

A. 172.16.0.0./21

B. 172.16.0.0./20

C. 172.16.0.0./16

D. 172.16.0.0/18

Answer: B

Explanation:

The 172.16.0.0./20 network is the best option as it includes all networks from 172.16.0.0 u2013 172.16.16.0 and does it more efficiently than the /16 and /18 subnets. The /21 subnet will not include all the other subnets in this one single summarized address.

Q9. Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator pings the default gateway at 10.10.10.1 and sees the output as shown. At which OSI layer is the problem?

A. data link layer

B. application layer

C. access layer

D. session layer

E. network layer

Answer: E

Explanation:

The command ping uses ICMP protocol, which is a network layer protocol used to propagate control message between host and router. The command ping is often used to verify the network connectivity, so it works at the network layer.

Q10. Scenario:

Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.

You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.

An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R4 in the Branch1 office. What is causing the problem?

A. There is an area ID mismatch.

B. There is a Layer 2 issue; an encapsulation mismatch on serial links.

C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.

D. The R3 router ID is configured on R4.

Answer: A

Explanation:

A show running-config command on R3 and R4 shows that R4 is incorrectly configured for area 2: